The function F is defined for all positive integers n by the following rule: is the number of positive integers each of which is less than n and has no positive factor in common with n other than 1. If p is any prime number then
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This is just Euler's totient function φ(n), right? For a prime p, all numbers 1 through p-1 are coprime to p, so f(p) = p - 1.
Right, the key is that a prime has no factors other than 1 and itself, so nothing below it shares a factor.
Took me a second to parse "no positive factor in common other than 1." Once I realized it's just counting coprime integers, it clicked.
Same, the wording is a bit clunky but the concept is straightforward once you translate it.
Why is (p-1)/2 wrong? I keep second-guessing myself.
Because it's not just the odds — every integer from 1 to p-1 is coprime to p, not half of them. Try p=7 and count.
Solid 655-level question. Concept is easy if you know totient, but the definition is written to make you slow down.
What it tests
Your ability to evaluate and compose functions, including unusual defined operations.
Common trap
Applying function operations in the wrong order or ignoring domain restrictions.